A familiar construction in Latin is the ablative absolute, which “define[s] the time or circumstance of an action” (A&G §419). Caesar, whose actions are very often defined by timing and circumstances, makes quite liberal use of this construction, e.g.
Caesar, acceptis litteris, nuntium missit” (de Bello Gallico 5.46)
(The letter having been received, Caesar sends a messenger).
quibus rebus cognitis, Caesar apud milites contionatur” (de Bello Civili 1.7)
(These things having come to light, Caesar makes a speech to the soldiers).
For similar such constructions, Anglo-Saxon uses the dative case, and Greek the genitive (both languages lacking the ablative).
But surprisingly, the genitive absolute also apparently makes a cameo in the Latin Vulgate:
spem autem habentes, rescentis fidei vestrae, in vobis magnificari secundu regulam nostram in abundantiam” (II. Cor. 10.15)
(but having hope, with your faith increasing, that it be magnified abundantly in you according to our rule).
qui ostendunt opus legis scriptum in cordibus suis, testimonium reddente illis conscientia ipsorum, et inter se invicem cogitationum accusantium aut etiam defendentium (Rom. 2.15)
(their conscience bearing witness to them, and their thoughts between themselves accusing, or also defending one another).
Plater and White note that such constructions are much more common in the Old Latin Bible than they are in Jerome’s Vulgate (§44). But why is this construction, alien to (Classical) Latin, there in the first place? Why is it non uniformly rendered with the ablative absolute throughout?
Further still: does the genitive absolute appear elsewhere (perhaps even as a consequence of Jerome’s use) in Late and Mediaeval Latin? I hope to come up with some instances. Please let me know if you find any.